Conjunction Injuction?
24-Apr-94 22:43:51
Sb: #140551-Conjunction Injuction?
Fm: J Saperstein/FontBank 75300,632
To: Andrew Carol 71350,3646
"If they let C= "get away" with not paying, then IBM could claim that they had
abandoned the patent, and would refuse to pay."
Not true, Andrew.
Assuming this story is true, the patentholder could easily decide not to
collect delinquent royalties without endangering their patent rights in any
way, shape or manner.
All they would have to do is write it off as uncollectible. That's a business
decision has nothing to do with their basic patent rights.
Any reasonably well drawn license agreement would terminate automatically for
non-payment.
Only if a licensee continued to use the licensed, but unpaid for technology,
would the licensor have to sue and even then it would be for breach of
contract, not to protect the rights under patent.
The burden of proof to prove abandonment of a trademark, copyright or patent
is very substantial. In one trademark case I read, the trademark hadn't been
used in 15 years, but the registration was still valid and its owner collected
a multi-million dollar judgement against an infringer.
Patents afford far greater protection than trademark registrations. Just
failing to sue someone for money owed under a license is not going to
invalidate or sustain a charge of abandonment of a patent. I'm not even sure a
patent can be abandoned, since as far as I know there is no requirement that a
patented item even be sold in commerce.
Jerry